Flag of the European Union EU Clinical Trials Register Help

Clinical trials

The European Union Clinical Trials Register   allows you to search for protocol and results information on:
  • interventional clinical trials that were approved in the European Union (EU)/European Economic Area (EEA) under the Clinical Trials Directive 2001/20/EC
  • clinical trials conducted outside the EU/EEA that are linked to European paediatric-medicine development

  • EU/EEA interventional clinical trials approved under or transitioned to the Clinical Trial Regulation 536/2014 are publicly accessible through the
    Clinical Trials Information System (CTIS).


    The EU Clinical Trials Register currently displays   43871   clinical trials with a EudraCT protocol, of which   7290   are clinical trials conducted with subjects less than 18 years old.   The register also displays information on   18700   older paediatric trials (in scope of Article 45 of the Paediatric Regulation (EC) No 1901/2006).

    Phase 1 trials conducted solely on adults and that are not part of an agreed paediatric investigation plan (PIP) are not publicly available (see Frequently Asked Questions ).  
     
    Examples: Cancer AND drug name. Pneumonia AND sponsor name.
    How to search [pdf]
    Search Tips: Under advanced search you can use filters for Country, Age Group, Gender, Trial Phase, Trial Status, Date Range, Rare Diseases and Orphan Designation. For these items you should use the filters and not add them to your search terms in the text field.
    Advanced Search: Search tools
     

    < Back to search results

    Print Download

    Summary
    EudraCT Number:2019-003296-19
    Sponsor's Protocol Code Number:AFM24-101
    National Competent Authority:Spain - AEMPS
    Clinical Trial Type:EEA CTA
    Trial Status:Ongoing
    Date on which this record was first entered in the EudraCT database:2020-02-21
    Trial results
    Index
    A. PROTOCOL INFORMATION
    B. SPONSOR INFORMATION
    C. APPLICANT IDENTIFICATION
    D. IMP IDENTIFICATION
    D.8 INFORMATION ON PLACEBO
    E. GENERAL INFORMATION ON THE TRIAL
    F. POPULATION OF TRIAL SUBJECTS
    G. INVESTIGATOR NETWORKS TO BE INVOLVED IN THE TRIAL
    N. REVIEW BY THE COMPETENT AUTHORITY OR ETHICS COMMITTEE IN THE COUNTRY CONCERNED
    P. END OF TRIAL
    Expand All   Collapse All
    A. Protocol Information
    A.1Member State ConcernedSpain - AEMPS
    A.2EudraCT number2019-003296-19
    A.3Full title of the trial
    A Phase 1/2a Open Label, Multicenter Study to Assess the Safety, Tolerability, Pharmacokinetics and Preliminary Efficacy of AFM24 in Patients with Advanced Solid Cancers
    Estudio de fase 1/2a, abierto, multicéntrico, para evaluar la seguridad, la tolerabilidad, la farmacocinética y la eficacia preliminar de AFM24 en pacientes con cáncer solido avanzado.
    A.3.1Title of the trial for lay people, in easily understood, i.e. non-technical, language
    A Phase 1/2a Study to Assess AFM24 in Advanced Solid Cancers
    Estudio en fase 1/2a para evaluar AFM24 en cánceres sólidos avanzados.
    A.4.1Sponsor's protocol code numberAFM24-101
    A.7Trial is part of a Paediatric Investigation Plan No
    A.8EMA Decision number of Paediatric Investigation Plan
    B. Sponsor Information
    B.Sponsor: 1
    B.1.1Name of SponsorAffimed GmbH
    B.1.3.4CountryGermany
    B.3.1 and B.3.2Status of the sponsorCommercial
    B.4 Source(s) of Monetary or Material Support for the clinical trial:
    B.4.1Name of organisation providing supportAffimed GmbH
    B.4.2CountryGermany
    B.5 Contact point designated by the sponsor for further information on the trial
    B.5.1Name of organisationAffimed GmbH
    B.5.2Functional name of contact pointClinical Trial Manager
    B.5.3 Address:
    B.5.3.1Street AddressTechnologiepark, Im Neuenheimer Feld 582
    B.5.3.2Town/ cityHeidelberg
    B.5.3.3Post code69120
    B.5.3.4CountryGermany
    B.5.4Telephone number+4962216743-621
    B.5.5Fax number+49622167436 49
    B.5.6E-mailu.gaertner@affimed.com
    D. IMP Identification
    D.IMP: 1
    D.1.2 and D.1.3IMP RoleTest
    D.2 Status of the IMP to be used in the clinical trial
    D.2.1IMP to be used in the trial has a marketing authorisation No
    D.2.5The IMP has been designated in this indication as an orphan drug in the Community No
    D.2.5.1Orphan drug designation number
    D.3 Description of the IMP
    D.3.1Product nameAFM24
    D.3.2Product code AFM24
    D.3.4Pharmaceutical form Powder for solution for injection/infusion
    D.3.4.1Specific paediatric formulation No
    D.3.7Routes of administration for this IMPIntravenous use
    D.3.8 to D.3.10 IMP Identification Details (Active Substances)
    D.3.8INN - Proposed INNNot yet assigned
    D.3.9.2Current sponsor codeAFM24
    D.3.9.3Other descriptive nameAFM24
    D.3.9.4EV Substance CodeSUB203845
    D.3.10 Strength
    D.3.10.1Concentration unit mg milligram(s)
    D.3.10.2Concentration typeequal
    D.3.10.3Concentration number20
    D.3.11 The IMP contains an:
    D.3.11.1Active substance of chemical origin No
    D.3.11.2Active substance of biological/ biotechnological origin (other than Advanced Therapy IMP (ATIMP) Yes
    The IMP is a:
    D.3.11.3Advanced Therapy IMP (ATIMP) No
    D.3.11.3.1Somatic cell therapy medicinal product No
    D.3.11.3.2Gene therapy medical product No
    D.3.11.3.3Tissue Engineered Product No
    D.3.11.3.4Combination ATIMP (i.e. one involving a medical device) No
    D.3.11.3.5Committee on Advanced therapies (CAT) has issued a classification for this product No
    D.3.11.4Combination product that includes a device, but does not involve an Advanced Therapy No
    D.3.11.5Radiopharmaceutical medicinal product No
    D.3.11.6Immunological medicinal product (such as vaccine, allergen, immune serum) No
    D.3.11.7Plasma derived medicinal product No
    D.3.11.8Extractive medicinal product No
    D.3.11.9Recombinant medicinal product Yes
    D.3.11.10Medicinal product containing genetically modified organisms No
    D.3.11.11Herbal medicinal product No
    D.3.11.12Homeopathic medicinal product No
    D.3.11.13Another type of medicinal product No
    D.8 Information on Placebo
    E. General Information on the Trial
    E.1 Medical condition or disease under investigation
    E.1.1Medical condition(s) being investigated
    Advanced solid malignancies in patients whose disease has progressed after treatment with previous anticancer therapies.
    Cáncer sólido avanzado que ha progresado después de tratamientos anticancerígenos previos
    E.1.1.1Medical condition in easily understood language
    Advanced Solid Cancers
    Cánceres sólidos avanzados
    E.1.1.2Therapeutic area Diseases [C] - Cancer [C04]
    MedDRA Classification
    E.1.2 Medical condition or disease under investigation
    E.1.2Version 21.0
    E.1.2Level LLT
    E.1.2Classification code 10048683
    E.1.2Term Advanced cancer
    E.1.2System Organ Class 100000004864
    E.1.3Condition being studied is a rare disease No
    E.2 Objective of the trial
    E.2.1Main objective of the trial
    PHASE 1:
    Determine the maximum tolerated dose (MTD), select a recommended phase 2 dose (RP2D), and investigate the safety and tolerability of AFM24 in patients with advanced solid malignancies.

    PHASE 2a:
    Assess the preliminary anti-tumor efficacy of AFM24, using tumor response criteria as defined by local RECIST v1.1
    FASE 1:
    Determinar la dosis máxima tolerada (DMT), seleccionar la dosis recomendada para la fase 2 (DRF2) e investigar la seguridad y la tolerabilidad de AFM24 en pacientes con cáncer sólido avanzado.

    FASE 2a:
    Evaluar la eficacia preliminar antitumoral de AFM24 de acuerdo con los criterios de respuesta tumoral RECIST v1.1 (evaluación local).
    E.2.2Secondary objectives of the trial
    PHASE 1:
    Characterize the pharmacokinetics (PK) of AFM24 administered intravenously (i.v.); Characterize the immunogenicity of AFM24; and assess the preliminary anti-tumor efficacy of AFM24, using tumor response criteria as defined by: Local Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) v1.1, Local immune-related RECIST (iRECIST), Central RECIST v1.1, Central iRECIST

    PHASE 2a:
    Characterize the safety and tolerability of AFM24, including both acute and chronic toxicities; Characterize the PK of AFM24 administered i.v.; Characterize the immunogenicity of AFM24; and Assess the preliminary anti-tumor efficacy of AFM24, using tumor response criteria as defined by: Local iRECIST; Central RECIST v1.1; and Central iRECIST
    FASE 1:
    Caracterizar la farmacocinética (FC) de AFM24 administrado por vía intravenosa (i.v.); Caracterizar la inmunogenicidad de AFM24; y Evaluar la eficacia preliminar antitumoral de AFM24 usando los criterios de respuesta tumoral definidos por: RECIST V1.1 local, iRECIST local, RECIST v1.1 centralizado, iRECIST centralizado.

    FASE 2a:
    Caracterizar la seguridad y la tolerabilidad de AFM24, incluidas la toxicidad aguda y la toxicidad crónica; Caracterizar la FC de AMF24 administrado por vía i.v.; Caracterizar la inmunogenicidad de AFM24; y evaluar la eficacia preliminar antitumoral de AFM24 usando los criterios de respuesta tumoral definidos por: iRECIST local; RECIST v1.1 centralizado; y iRECIST centralizado.
    E.2.3Trial contains a sub-study No
    E.3Principal inclusion criteria
    1) Patients with histologically or cytologically confirmed advanced or metastatic solid malignancies that are known to express EGFR, or in which EGFR is thought to be a relevant therapeutic target, including but not limited to: colorectal, lung, gastric, esophageal, pancreatic, head and neck, breast, ovarian, cervical, urothelial, and renal cancers, and glioblastoma multiforme.
    2) Patients must have been previously treated with one or more lines of anticancer therapy and have documented disease progression during or after their most recent line of anticancer therapy. In addition, either there is no further SOC therapy for the patient or the remaining SOC therapies are deemed not appropriate for the patient by the Investigator.
    3) Voluntary provision and understanding of signed and dated, written informed consent prior to any mandatory study-specific procedures, sampling, or analysis
    4) Male or female aged >=18 years on the day of signing informed consent
    5) Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) Performance Score (PS) 0 or 1.
    6) Adequate organ function within 14 days before first AFM24 infusion, as defined as in the protocol.
    Patients must also meet these criteria when assessed within 3 days before first AFM24 infusion to remain eligible.
    7) Serum potassium, calcium, magnesium and phosphorus within normal limits. If values are low on the initial screening assessment, supplements may be given and values repeated to confirm within normal limits.
    8) Patients must have at least one tumor site that is accessible to biopsy and that is considered by the Investigator to be low risk and of sufficient size to undergo a core biopsy procedure on at least 2 separate occasions.
    9) Phase 2a only: Patients must have measurable disease per RECIST v1.1 (i.e., at least 1 measurable lesion >=10 mm by CT scan or MRI or >=20 mm by chest X ray, malignant lymph nodes are considered measurable if short axis is >=15 mm assessed by CT scan), with the last imaging performed within 28 days before Cycle (C) 1 Day (D) 1 (C1D1).
    10) Patients in Phase 2a must have a disease history specific to their disease as listed below:
    • Colorectal Cancer: Patients with metastatic colorectal carcinoma (mCRC) whose disease has progressed following prior treatment with oxaliplatin, irinotecan and a fluoropyrimidine for metastatic disease. Patients must have documentation of RAS mutational status. If RAS is wildtype, prior therapy must have included an approved anti-EGFR monoclonal antibody, i.e., either cetuximab or panitumumab, as a component. For patients with microsatellite instability-high or mismatch repair deficient mCRC prior lines of therapy must have included a checkpoint inhibitor if approved and available.
    • NSCLC without a targetable EGFR mutation: Patients with advanced or metastatic NSCLC whose disease has progressed after having received >=2 prior lines of therapy for advanced disease, which must have included platinum-based therapy and an anti-PD-1/PD-L1 antibody. Patients must have documentation of NSCLC without a targetable EGFR mutation as assessed by genomic sequencing of tumor or circulating free tumor DNA. Patients with a targetable mutation other than EGFR must have received an approved targeted treatment if available. Patients with anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK)-positive tumor must have received an approved ALK inhibitor such as crizotinib, ceritinib, alectinib or lorlatinib. Patients with ROS proto-oncogene 1 receptor tyrosine kinase (ROS1) rearrangement must have received an approved drug blocking the ROS1 protein such as crizotinib or entrectinib. It is recommended that patients with B-RAF V600E mutated NSCLC have received dabrafenib plus trametinib, if approved and available.
    • NSCLC with a targetable EGFR mutation: Patients with advanced or metastatic NSCLC harboring a targetable EGFR kinase domain mutation and whose disease has progressed after having received >=1 prior lines of therapy for advanced disease including >=1 prior tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI) approved for EGFR mutated NSCLC, such as gefitinib, erlotinib, afatinib, dacomitinib or osimertinib. Patients must have documentation of EGFR mutated NSCLC as assessed by an approved test using genomic sequencing of tumor or circulating free tumor DNA
    11) Female patients must have a negative urine or serum pregnancy test within 72 hours prior to first dose of AFM24 if of childbearing potential or be of non-childbearing potential as defined in the protocol
    12) Females of childbearing potential must agree to sexual abstinence (defined below) or be willing to use a highly effective method of contraception for the course of the study from 14 days prior to the first dose of study drug through 120 days after the last dose of study drug
    13) Males who have female partners of childbearing potential must agree to use a highly effective method of contraception starting with the first dose of study therapy through 120 days after the last dose of study drug
    1) Pacientes con cánceres sólidos metastásicos o avanzados confirmados histológica o citológicamente que expresen el EGFR o que se considere que el EGFR es una diana terapéutica importante, entre otros: colorrectal, pulmonar, gástrico, esofágico, pancreático, de cabeza y cuello, de mama, de ovario, cervical, uroterial y renal, o glioblastoma multiforme.
    2) Los pacientes deben haber recibido una o más líneas de tratamiento antitumoral y haber sufrido progresión de la enfermedad documentada en la línea de tratamiento antitumoral más reciente o después de esta. Además, que no existan otros tratamientos de referencia, o que el investigador considere que los otros tratamientos no son adecuados.
    3) El paciente debe dar consentimiento informado por escrito antes de cualquier procedimiento del estudio.
    4) Pacientes de ambos sexos >= 18 años el día en el que firmen el consentimiento informado.
    5) Presentar categoría funcional de 0 o 1 del ECOG.
    6) Presentar función orgánica aceptable en los 14 días anteriores a la primera infusión de AFM24, como se indica en el protocolo. Cumplir estos criterios en los 3 días anteriores a la primera infusión de AFM24 para seguir siendo elegibles.
    7) Concentraciones séricas de potasio, calcio, magnesio y fósforo en la normalidad. Si los valores son bajos en la evaluación inicial, podrán administrarse suplementos y repetir las pruebas para confirmar la normalidad.
    8) Deben presentar al menos una localización tumoral accesible para realizar biopsia, y que el investigador considere un riesgo bajo y tamaño suficiente como para realizar una biopsia por punción con aguja gruesa al menos 2 veces.
    9) Solo para fase 2a: los pacientes deben presentar enfermedad mensurable según criterios RECIST v1.1, y la última prueba de imagen debe ser de los 28 días anteriores al día (D) 1 del ciclo (C) 1 (D1C1).
    10) Los pacientes de la fase 2a deben presentar los siguientes antecedentes:
    -Cáncer colorrectal: pacientes con carcinoma colorrectal metastásico (CCRm) que haya progresado tras un tratamiento previo con oxaliplatino, irinotecán y una fluoropirimidina administrado para tratar las metástasis. Debe haberse documentado el estado mutacional de RAS del paciente. Si RAS no presenta mutaciones, el tratamiento previo debe haber incluido un anticuerpo monoclonal anti-EGFR aprobado, es decir, cetuximab o panitumumab. Los pacientes que presenten CCRm con alta inestabilidad de microsatélites o con alteración de la vía reparadora, las líneas previas de tratamiento deben haber incluido un inhibidor del punto de control inmune, si este tratamiento esta aprobado y disponible.
    -CPNM que no presente una mutación en EGFR que pueda servir de diana: pacientes con CPNM metastásico o avanzado cuya enfermedad haya progresado tras haber recibido ≥2 líneas de tratamiento para la enfermedad avanzada, que debe haber incluido un derivado del platino y un anticuerpo anti-PD-1/PD-L1. Deben presentar de forma documentada CPNM sin una mutación en EGFR que pueda servir de diana, segun los resultados de la secuenciación genómica del tumor o el análisis del ADN tumoral libre circulante. Los pacientes con una mutación que pueda servir de diana (distintas a las mutaciones en EGFR) deben haber recibido un tratamiento dirigido aprobado si está disponible. Los pacientes con tumores que presenten alteraciones de la ALK deben haber recibido un inhibidor aprobado de la ALK, como crizotinib, ceritinib, alectinib o lorlatinib. Los pacientes con reordenación del gen del protooncogén 1 ROS (ROS1) deben haber recibido un fármaco aprobado que bloquee la proteína ROS1, como crizotinib o entrectinib. Se recomienda que pacientes que presenten CPNM con la mutación V600E en B-RAF hayan recibido dabrafenib y trametinib, si están aprobados y están disponibles.
    -CPNM que presente una mutación en EGFR que pueda servir de diana: pacientes con CPNM metastásico o avanzado y que presente una mutación en el dominio cinasa de EGFR que pueda servir de diana, cuya enfermedad haya progresado tras haber recibido >= 1 línea previa de un ITC aprobado para el CPNM con mutaciones en EGFR, como gefitinib, erlotinib, afatinib, dacomitinib u osimertinib. Los pacientes deben presentar de forma documentada CPNM con una mutación en EGFR, de acuerdo con los resultados de la secuenciación genómica del tumor o el análisis del ADN tumoral libre circulante.
    11) Las mujeres deben dar resultado negativo en la prueba de embarazo que se hace en las 72 horas antes de la primera dosis de AFM24 si pueden quedarse embarazadas o, sino, que no puedan quedarse embarazadas.
    12) Las mujeres que pueden quedar embarazadas deben aceptar la abstinencia sexual o usar un método anticonceptivo muy eficaz durante el estudio, desde 14 días antes de la primera dosis del fármaco hasta los 120 días desde la última dosis.
    13) Varones cuyas parejas puedan quedarse embarazadas deben utilizar un método anticonceptivo muy eficaz, desde la primera dosis hasta 120 días tras la última dosis.
    E.4Principal exclusion criteria
    1) Currently participating in a study and receiving study therapy, or participated in a study of an investigational agent and received study therapy or used an investigational device within 4 weeks of the first dose of study treatment.
    2) Treatment with systemic anticancer therapy within 4 weeks (6 weeks if therapy was mitomycin C and/or nitrosoureas), or within 5 half-lives of the agent if half-life is known and it is shorter, before first dose of study drug. Anticancer therapies include cytotoxic chemotherapy, targeted inhibitors, and immunotherapies, but do not include hormonal therapy or radiotherapy.
    3) Radiation therapy within 2 weeks before first dose of study drug or unresolved (National Cancer Institute [NCI] Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events [CTCAE] v5.0 >Grade 1) toxicity from previous radiotherapy (e.g., radiation dermatitis).
    4) Major surgery within 4 weeks before first dose of study drug.
    5) Previous treatment related toxicity, with the exception of alopecia (any grade), or peripheral neuropathy or fatigue which have not recovered to CTCAE v5.0 =<Grade 1 prior to first day of study treatment.
    6) History of any other malignancy known to be active, with the exception of completely removed in situ cervical intra-epithelial neoplasia, non-melanoma skin cancer, ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS), early stage prostate cancer that has been adequately treated, and other cancers from which the patient has been disease free for 3 years or longer.
    7) One or more of the following cardiac criteria: Unstable angina; Myocardial infarction within 6 months prior to screening; New York Heart Association Class II to IV heart failure; Corrected QT interval (QTc) >470 msec obtained as the mean from 3 consecutive resting electrocardiograms (ECGs) using the Fridericia’s formula; Clinically important abnormalities in rhythm, conduction, or morphology of resting ECG (e.g., complete left bundle branch block or third-degree heart block); Congenital long QT syndrome; Uncontrolled hypertension (>=130/80 mmHg based on accurate measurement and average of >=2 readings which are >=5 minutes apart on >=2 occasions at least one day apart).
    8) Stroke or transient ischemic attack within 6 months prior to screening.
    9) History of leptomeningeal disease or spinal cord compression.
    10) Known brain metastases unless asymptomatic and not requiring steroids for at least 4 weeks prior to start of study treatment.
    11) Patients with primary brain tumor who require high dose steroids (defined as≥30 mg prednisolone or equivalent per day) or who received high dose steroids within 4 weeks prior to first dose of study treatment.
    12) Diagnosis of immunodeficiency or active infection including known hepatitis B, hepatitis C, or human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
    13) Active autoimmune disease that requires systemic treatment with steroids or other immunosuppressive agents, or patients who have received such agents within 1 months prior to first dose of study treatment. Replacement therapy (e.g., thyroxine, insulin, or physiologic corticosteroid replacement therapy for adrenal or pituitary insufficiency) is not considered a form of systemic treatment.
    14) Patients who require systemic steroid treatment or any other immunosuppressive therapy, or patients who received such therapy within 4 weeks prior to the first dose of study treatment, with the exception of steroid allowance for primary brain tumor as outlined in exclusion criterion 11, or for physiologic replacement as outlined in exclusion criterion 13.
    15) Pregnant, breastfeeding, or expecting to conceive or father children within the projected duration of the study, starting with the Screening visit (females) or first dose of study treatment (males) through 120 days after the last dose of study treatment.
    16) Patient’s unwillingness to comply with the protocol or inability to appreciate the nature, meaning, and consequences of the study and to formulate his/her own wishes accordingly.
    17) Any medical, psychological, or social condition that would interfere with the patient’s participation in the study.
    1) Participar en la actualidad en un estudio y estar recibiendo un tratamiento en estudio, o haber participado en un estudio en el que se administre un fármaco en fase de investigación y haber recibido el tratamiento en estudio, o haber utilizado un dispositivo en fase de investigación durante las 4 semanas anteriores a la primera dosis del tratamiento del estudio.
    2) Haber recibido un tratamiento antitumoral sistémico en un período de 4 semanas (o de 6 semanas, si el tratamiento incluía mitomicina C o nitrosoureas), o de 5 semividas del fármaco (si se sabe que la semivida es más corta) antes de la primera dosis del fármaco del estudio. Los tratamientos antitumorales incluyen la quimioterapia citotóxica, los inhibidores dirigidos y las inmunoterapias, no así la hormonoterapia ni la radioterapia.
    3) Haber recibido radioterapia durante las 2 semanas anteriores a la primera dosis del fármaco del estudio o presentar toxicidad sin resolver relacionada con la radioterapia previa (por ej, dermatitis por radiación) (grado > 1 según los criterios terminológicos comunes para acontecimientos adversos [CTCAE] v5.0 del NCI).
    4) Haberse sometido a una intervención de cirugía mayor durante las 4 semanas anteriores a la primera dosis del fármaco.
    5) Presentar toxicidad relacionada con un tratamiento anterior, salvo alopecia (de cualquier grado), neuropatía periférica o fatiga que no se haya recuperado hasta un grado 1 de acuerdo con los CTCAE v5.0 antes del primer día del tratamiento.
    6) Antecedentes de cualquier otra neoplasia maligna activa, salvo los casos de neoplasias intraepiteliales cervicales in situ que se hayan extirpado completamente, cáncer de piel no melanomatoso, carcinoma ductal in situ, cáncer de próstata en fases tempranas que se haya tratado adecuadamente y pacientes con otros cánceres que no hayan presentado la enfermedad al menos durante 3 años.
    7) Uno o más de uno de los siguientes criterios cardíacos:
    -Angina inestable;
    -Infarto de miocardio durante los 6 meses anteriores a la selección;
    -Insuficiencia cardíaca de clase II-IV según la NYHA;
    -Valor de QTc >470 ms, determinado calculando la media de 3 ECGs consecutivos en reposo según la fórmula de Fridericia;
    -Alteraciones clínicamente importantes en el ritmo, la conducción o la morfología del ECG en reposo (por ej, bloqueo completo de rama izquierda o bloqueo cardíaco de tercer grado);
    -Síndrome de QT largo congénito;
    -Hipertensión sin controlar (valor >= 130/80 mm Hg y media de >=2 lecturas entre las que hayan transcurrido >=5 minutos en >=2 ocasiones entre las que haya transcurrido al menos un día).
    8) Accidente cerebrovascular o accidente isquémico transitorio durante los 6 meses anteriores a la selección.
    9) Antecedentes de enfermedad leptomeníngea o compresión de la médula espinal.
    10) Presencia de metástasis cerebrales, a menos que sean asintomáticas y no precisen la administración de corticosteroides al menos durante las 4 semanas anteriores al inicio del tratamiento.
    11) Pacientes con tumor cerebral primario que precisen dosis altas de corticosteroides (30 mg de prednisolona/día o [o equivalente]) o que hayan recibido dosis altas de corticosteroides durante las 4 semanas anteriores a la primera dosis del tratamiento.
    12) Diagnóstico de inmunodeficiencia o infección activa, entre otras, hepatitis B, hepatitis C o infección por el virus de la inmunodeficiencia humana (VIH).
    13) Enfermedad autoinmunitaria activa que precise la administración de tratamiento sistémico con corticosteroides u otros fármacos inmunodepresores, o pacientes que hayan requerido dichos fármacos en el transcurso del mes anterior a la primera dosis del tratamiento del estudio. El tratamiento de reposición (por ej, tiroxina, insulina o tratamiento restitutivo con dosis fisiológicas de corticosteroides para tratar la insuficiencia suprarrenal o el hipopituitarismo, etc.) no se considera un tipo de tratamiento sistémico.
    14) Pacientes que precisen tratamiento sistémico con corticoesteroides o cualquier otro tratamiento inmunosupresor, o pacientes que hayan recibido dichos tratamientos durante las 4 semanas anteriores a la primera dosis del tratamiento, salvo el tratamiento con corticoesteroides para el tumor cerebral primario (según criterio de exclusión 11), o la restitución fisiológica (según criterio de exclusión 13).
    15) Pacientes embarazadas o en período de lactancia o pacientes de ambos sexos que tengan previsto concebir o engendrar un niño durante el período estimado del estudio, desde la visita de selección (mujeres) o la primera dosis del tratamiento del estudio (varones) hasta 120 días desde la última dosis del tratamiento.
    16) Si el paciente no está dispuesto a cumplir el protocolo o no puede entender la naturaleza, significado y consecuencias del estudio, ni formular sus deseos en consecuencia.
    17) Cualquier enfermedad (incluidas las psicológicas) o situación social que podría interferir en la participación del paciente en el estudio.
    E.5 End points
    E.5.1Primary end point(s)
    PHASE 1:
    The incidence of dose limiting toxicities (DLTs), AEs, and serious AEs (SAEs), dose interruption, and changes between baseline and post-baseline laboratory parameters including electrocardiograms (ECGs), vital signs, and physical exams

    PHASE 2a:
    Overall response rate (CR+PR) assessed by local RECIST v1.1.
    FASE 1:
    La incidencia de toxicidades limitantes de la dosis, AA y AA graves (SAEs), interrupción de la dosis y cambios entre los parámetros de laboratorio basales y posteriores a la línea de base, incluidos los electrocardiogramas (ECG), los signos vitales y los exámenes físicos

    FASE 2a:
    Se evaluará la tasa global de respuesta (esto es, la consecución de una respuesta completa [RC] o una respuesta parcial [RP] confirmada) mediante los criterios RECIST v1.1.
    E.5.1.1Timepoint(s) of evaluation of this end point
    PHASE 1:
    For cohorts 1&2, at least 2 patients, and for cohorts 3+, at least 3 patients, need to be evaluable for the dose-determining set. Patients must receive >=80% of their assigned AFM24 dose in Cycle 1 and complete the 28-day DLT observation period or have had a DLT within the first cycle of treatment to be considered evaluable for DLT. Safety will be assessed by periodic vital signs, physical examinations, ECOG PS, 12-lead ECGs, clinical laboratory assessments, and monitoring of adverse events (AEs).

    PHASE 2a:
    Tumor assessment with CT and/or MRI will occur at Screening as well as during the last week of Cycles 2, 4, 6, 8, and every 3 cycles thereafter. Partial or complete response needs to be confirmed with repeated assessment at least 4 weeks after the initial assessment.
    FASE 1:
    Para las cohortes 1 y 2, al menos 2 pacientes, y para las cohortes 3+, al menos 3 pacientes, deben ser evaluables determinación de la dosis. Los pacientes deben recibir >=80% de dosis de AFM24 asignada en el Ciclo 1 y completar el período de observación de TLD de 28 días o haber tenido un TLD en el primer ciclo de tratamiento para ser considerado evaluable para TLD. La seguridad se evaluará según signos vitales, exámenes físicos, ECOG PS, ECG de 12 derivaciones, datos de laboratorio y control de AAs.

    FASE 2a:
    La evaluación del tumor con CT y / o MRI se hará en el cribado y durante la última semana de los ciclos 2, 4, 6, 8 y cada 3 ciclos posteriores. La respuesta parcial o completa debe confirmarse con una evaluación repetida al menos 4 semanas después de la evaluación inicial
    E.5.2Secondary end point(s)
    PHASE 1:
    Serum PK parameters: area under the concentrationtime curve (AUC), Cmax, minimum plasma concentration (Cmin), clearance (CL), volume of distribution (Vd), volume of distribution at steady state (Vss), terminal t½
    Measurement of anti-drug antibodies (ADA) before and throughout treatment with AFM24
    Overall response rate (complete response [CR] + partial response [PR]), duration of response (DOR), and disease control rate (CR + PR + stable disease [SD]) assessed by Local RECIST v1.1; Local iRECIST; Central RECIST v1.1; and Central iRECIST. Progression-free survival (PFS), and overall survival (OS) measured by local and central assessments.

    PHASE 2a:
    AEs, SAEs, and changes between baseline and postbaseline laboratory parameters including ECGs, vital signs, and physical exams
    PK parameters: AUC, Cmax, Cmin, CL, Vd, Vss, terminal t½
    Measurement of ADA before and throughout treatment with AFM24
    OR (CR + PR) assessed by Local iRECIST; Central RECIST v1.1; and Central iRECIST. DOR, and disease control rate (CR + PR + SD) assessed by Local RECIST v1.1; Local iRECIST; Central RECIST v1.1; and Central iRECIST.
    PFS, OS measured by local and central assessments
    FASE 1:
    Parámetros de FC en suero: área bajo la curva de concentración-tiempo (ABC), concentración plasmática mínima (Cmáx), concentración plasmática mínima (Cmín), el aclaramiento (CL), el volumen de distribución (Vd), volumen de distribución en el estado de equilibrio (Vee) y la semivida terminal (t½).
    Medición de anticuerpos antidrogas antes y durante el tratamiento con AFM24.
    Tasa de respuesta global (respuesta completa [RC] + respuesta parcial [RP]), duración de la respuesta y tasa de control de la enfermedad (RC + RP + enfermedad estable) evaluada según RECIST v1.1 local; IRECIST local; RECIST v1.1 central; y iRECIST central. Supervivencia libre de progresión (SLP) y supervivencia general (SG) medida mediante evaluaciones locales y centrales.

    FASE 2a:
    AA, SAE y cambios entre los parámetros de laboratorio basales y posbasales, incluidos ECG, signos vitales y exámenes físicos
    Parámetros FC: ABC, Cmax, Cmin, CL, Vd, Vee, terminal t½
    Medición de ADA antes y durante el tratamiento con AFM24
    O (RC + RP) evaluado por iRECIST local; RECIST v1.1 central; y iRECIST central. Duración de la respuesta y tasa de control de la enfermedad (RC + RP + enfermedad estable) evaluada por RECIST v1.1 local; IRECIST local; RECIST v1.1 central; y iRECIST central.
    Supervivencia libre de progresión (SLP) y supervivencia general (SG) medida mediante evaluaciones locales y centrales.
    E.5.2.1Timepoint(s) of evaluation of this end point
    Phase 1 & 2a:
    Safety will be assessed by periodic vital signs, physical examinations, ECOG PS, 12-lead ECGs, clinical laboratory assessments, and monitoring of adverse events (AEs).
    Blood samples for PK assessments will be drawn during Cycle 1 on Days 1, 3, 7, 8, 15, 22, 24, and 28 as well as during Cycle 2 on Days 1, 8, 15, and 22, and during subsequent cycles on Day 1. PK Blood samples will also be drawn at the End of Treatment visit..
    ADA will be measured on Days 1, 8, 15, and 22 in every cycle, and at the End of Treatment visit.
    Disease response will be assessed by the Investigator, and imaging results will be sent for independent central review.
    After the end of treatment patients will be followed for safety, DOR, PFS and OS until the end of the study
    Fase 1 y 2a:
    La seguridad se evaluará con signos vitales periódicos, exámenes físicos, ECOG PS, ECG de 12 derivaciones, resultados de laboratorio y control de AA.
    Se tomarán muestras de sangre para las evaluaciones de FC durante el ciclo 1 los días 1, 3, 7, 8, 15, 22, 24 y 28, así como durante el ciclo 2 los días 1, 8, 15 y 22, y en los ciclos posteriores el día 1. Las muestras de sangre para FC se extraerán en la visita de fin del tratamiento.
    La ADA se medirá los días 1, 8, 15 y 22 en cada ciclo y en la visita de final de tratamiento.
    El investigador evaluará la respuesta y los resultados de imágenes se enviarán a una revisión central independiente.
    Tras el final del tratamiento, se seguirá a los pacientes por seguridad, DOR, SLP y SG hasta el fin del estudio.
    E.6 and E.7 Scope of the trial
    E.6Scope of the trial
    E.6.1Diagnosis No
    E.6.2Prophylaxis No
    E.6.3Therapy No
    E.6.4Safety Yes
    E.6.5Efficacy Yes
    E.6.6Pharmacokinetic Yes
    E.6.7Pharmacodynamic No
    E.6.8Bioequivalence No
    E.6.9Dose response Yes
    E.6.10Pharmacogenetic No
    E.6.11Pharmacogenomic No
    E.6.12Pharmacoeconomic No
    E.6.13Others No
    E.7Trial type and phase
    E.7.1Human pharmacology (Phase I) Yes
    E.7.1.1First administration to humans Yes
    E.7.1.2Bioequivalence study No
    E.7.1.3Other No
    E.7.1.3.1Other trial type description
    E.7.2Therapeutic exploratory (Phase II) Yes
    E.7.3Therapeutic confirmatory (Phase III) No
    E.7.4Therapeutic use (Phase IV) No
    E.8 Design of the trial
    E.8.1Controlled No
    E.8.1.1Randomised No
    E.8.1.2Open Yes
    E.8.1.3Single blind No
    E.8.1.4Double blind No
    E.8.1.5Parallel group No
    E.8.1.6Cross over No
    E.8.1.7Other No
    E.8.2 Comparator of controlled trial
    E.8.2.1Other medicinal product(s) No
    E.8.2.2Placebo No
    E.8.2.3Other No
    E.8.2.4Number of treatment arms in the trial1
    E.8.3 The trial involves single site in the Member State concerned Yes
    E.8.4 The trial involves multiple sites in the Member State concerned No
    E.8.5The trial involves multiple Member States Yes
    E.8.5.1Number of sites anticipated in the EEA3
    E.8.6 Trial involving sites outside the EEA
    E.8.6.1Trial being conducted both within and outside the EEA Yes
    E.8.6.2Trial being conducted completely outside of the EEA No
    E.8.6.3If E.8.6.1 or E.8.6.2 are Yes, specify the regions in which trial sites are planned
    Germany
    Spain
    United Kingdom
    United States
    E.8.7Trial has a data monitoring committee Yes
    E.8.8 Definition of the end of the trial and justification where it is not the last visit of the last subject undergoing the trial
    1 year after the last patient completes study treatment
    1 año después de que el último paciente complete el tratamiento del estudio
    E.8.9 Initial estimate of the duration of the trial
    E.8.9.1In the Member State concerned years3
    E.8.9.1In the Member State concerned months2
    E.8.9.1In the Member State concerned days11
    E.8.9.2In all countries concerned by the trial years3
    E.8.9.2In all countries concerned by the trial months2
    E.8.9.2In all countries concerned by the trial days11
    F. Population of Trial Subjects
    F.1 Age Range
    F.1.1Trial has subjects under 18 No
    F.1.1.1In Utero No
    F.1.1.2Preterm newborn infants (up to gestational age < 37 weeks) No
    F.1.1.3Newborns (0-27 days) No
    F.1.1.4Infants and toddlers (28 days-23 months) No
    F.1.1.5Children (2-11years) No
    F.1.1.6Adolescents (12-17 years) No
    F.1.2Adults (18-64 years) Yes
    F.1.2.1Number of subjects for this age range: 42
    F.1.3Elderly (>=65 years) Yes
    F.1.3.1Number of subjects for this age range: 27
    F.2 Gender
    F.2.1Female Yes
    F.2.2Male Yes
    F.3 Group of trial subjects
    F.3.1Healthy volunteers No
    F.3.2Patients Yes
    F.3.3Specific vulnerable populations Yes
    F.3.3.1Women of childbearing potential not using contraception No
    F.3.3.2Women of child-bearing potential using contraception Yes
    F.3.3.3Pregnant women No
    F.3.3.4Nursing women No
    F.3.3.5Emergency situation No
    F.3.3.6Subjects incapable of giving consent personally No
    F.3.3.7Others No
    F.4 Planned number of subjects to be included
    F.4.1In the member state6
    F.4.2 For a multinational trial
    F.4.2.1In the EEA 38
    F.4.2.2In the whole clinical trial 69
    F.5 Plans for treatment or care after the subject has ended the participation in the trial (if it is different from the expected normal treatment of that condition)
    Patients will continue on treatment until disease progression, intolerable toxicity, Investigator discretion, or patient withdrawal. After they will revert to standard of care
    Los pacientes continuarán con el tratamiento hasta la progresión de la enfermedad, toxicidad intolerable, decisión del investigador o retirada del paciente. Después volverán al estándar de tratamiento del hospital.
    G. Investigator Networks to be involved in the Trial
    N. Review by the Competent Authority or Ethics Committee in the country concerned
    N.Competent Authority Decision Authorised
    N.Date of Competent Authority Decision2020-03-27
    N.Ethics Committee Opinion of the trial applicationFavourable
    N.Ethics Committee Opinion: Reason(s) for unfavourable opinion
    N.Date of Ethics Committee Opinion2020-03-17
    P. End of Trial
    P.End of Trial StatusOngoing
    For support, Contact us.
    The status and protocol content of GB trials is no longer updated since 1 January 2021. For the UK, as of 31 January 2021, EU Law applies only to the territory of Northern Ireland (NI) to the extent foreseen in the Protocol on Ireland/NI. Legal notice
    As of 31 January 2023, all EU/EEA initial clinical trial applications must be submitted through CTIS . Updated EudraCT trials information and information on PIP/Art 46 trials conducted exclusively in third countries continues to be submitted through EudraCT and published on this website.

    European Medicines Agency © 1995-Fri May 03 20:20:20 CEST 2024 | Domenico Scarlattilaan 6, 1083 HS Amsterdam, The Netherlands
    EMA HMA